Math 226

Solutions to HW #4

October 14, 2003


p. 68, 1c, 2d, 3c, p. 73, 1d, p. 90, 8b, p. 94, 2b, 3a,b, 4, p. 104, 10, 11, 13


p. 68, 1c. We're given the function
MATH
As usual, this means $z=x+iy,$ so we could write this (and it might be clearer to write this) as
MATH

Anyway, if we let MATH and MATH then we have
MATH
and
MATH
Consequently, the Cauchy-Riemann equations, which say
MATH
would only be satisfied if
MATH

The second equation can only be satisfied if $y=0,$ but under those circumstances, the first equation cannot be satisfied at all. Hence there is no point $\left( x,y\right) $ at which both these equation are satisfied. Thus, there is no point $x+iy$ at which the function $f$ is differentiable.


2d. We consider the function
MATH
We want to verify first that the real and imaginary parts of $f$ satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

We have, writing $f=u+iv,$
MATH
and we compute:
MATH
and
MATH
Now we can see that the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied, and since these partial derivatives are continuous functions of $x$ and $y,$ we know that $f$ is differentiable everywhere. Moreover, we know that
MATH
so
MATH
Now we can repeat this process and show that $f^{\prime }$ is itself differentiable.

We have $f^{\prime }=U+iV,$ where
MATH
so that
MATH
and
MATH
Again we see that the C-R equations are satisfied, and since these partial derivatives are everywhere continuous, $f^{\prime }$ is differentiable everywhere and
MATH
Notice this second derivative is just the negative of the original function $f.$ We are not surprised, since we recognize that MATH


3c. Now we're given the function
MATH
Denoting the real and imaginary parts of $f$ by $u$ and $v$, as usual, we compute
MATH
and
MATH
Thus, the C-R equations are satisfied when
MATH
These equations are satisfied only at MATH That is, only at $z=0.$ But the partial derivatives exist everywhere and are continuous everywhere, so that's (more than) enough to meet the requirements of the theorem in section 21. So $f$ is differentiable at $z=0,$ and the derivative is
MATH

p. 73, 1d. We're given the function
MATH
Now we have the real and imaginary parts of $f,$ so we can hope to verify that the C-R equations hold. (We already see that the partial derivatives will be continuous, since the real and imaginary parts are sums and products of functions that we know have continuous partials of all orders).

Now we calculate
MATH
and
MATH
and
MATH
and
MATH

Now we see that $u_{x}=v_{y}$ and $u_{y}=-v_{x}.$


p. 90, 8b. We want all values of $z$ such that
MATH
In other words, we want to calculate $\ln 1+i\sqrt{3}.$ We know that
MATH
so
MATH
where $k$ runs through all the integers.


p. 94, 2b. As in the previous problem, we have
MATH
where $k$ runs through all the integers. More specifically,
MATH
where $k$ runs through all the integers.


3a. We have
MATH
On the other hand
MATH

3b. We have
MATH

On the other hand
MATH

4a. Suppose we choose the branch of the logarithm that says
MATH
where we require
MATH
Then we have
MATH
And
MATH
Thus, for this branch of the logarithm,
MATH

b. But if we take the branch of the logarithm that says
MATH
where we require
MATH
Then we have
MATH
And
MATH
Thus for this branch of the logarithm,
MATH
p. 104, 10a. We are told that
MATH
Therefore,
MATH
and so
MATH

b. Similarly, We are told that
MATH
for all $x$ and $y.$

Therefore,
MATH
and so
MATH

11a. Again, from the equality
MATH
we get
MATH
and so
MATH
But we also have
MATH
and the desired inequality is
MATH
which we can then rewrite as
MATH
or
MATH
or
MATH
But this we know is true for all $x.$


11b. In a similar way we are told that
MATH
so
MATH
and so
MATH
But also
MATH
so the desired inequality
MATH
becomes
MATH
or
MATH
or
MATH
which we know to be true for all $x.$


13. We have
MATH
so
MATH
Now we compute the partial derivatives:
MATH
Also
MATH
We see that the C-R equations are only satisfied when
MATH
But $\cosh y$ is never $0,$ so the first equation becomes
MATH
which means
MATH
But at these values of $x,$ $\sin x\neq 0,$ so the second equation requires that $\sinh y=0,$ and so $y=0.$ Thus the C-R equations are satisfied at all the points on the real axis of the form
MATH

The partial derivatives of the real and imaginary parts of $\sin \bar{z}$ are continuous everywhere, so $\sin \bar{z}$ is differentiable at each of these points. However, for $\sin \bar{z}$ to be analytic at a point, it must not only have a derivative there, but it must have a derivative at every point in some neighborhood of that point. Since the above points are the only points where $\sin \bar{z}$ has a derivative, there is no neighborhood throughout which $\sin \bar{z}$ has a derivative, and so $\sin \bar{z}$ is analytic nowhere.

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